How can I prove that these two intervals are equipollent?

The intervals are ( 0 , 1 ) and ( 0 , 1 ]. We saw it once in cl, but my professors only did a small part of the proof and I can't find the notes. I think he's also been mistakenly using the term 'equivalent' when it should be 'equipollent,' but at any rate, I'm trying to find a one-to-one correspondence between the two. Thanks!